Assuming that the ultimate goals of macroprudential policies are identical to the aims of monetary policy, what are the implications for each type of policy? If macroprudential supervisory tools are expected to maximize the objective function of monetary policy, does that ultimately make these instruments part of monetary policy? Hence, is macroprudential supervision really just macroprudential monetary policy—meaning the use of supervisory tools to achieve the monetary policy objectives? What are the short-run tradeoffs when trying to achieve the goals of financial stability, price stability, and full employment? What are the coordination issues?
Alternatively, are the two policy instruments independent? Do macroprudential tools allow the monetary authority to avoid the tradeoff between short-run and long-run objectives? For example, if macroprudential tools had been in place in 2004, could the Fed have recognized that although unemployment may have been a bit higher than desired, housing prices were accelerating too rapidly, and that these higher asset prices contained the potential for a future financial crisis? Perhaps a preferred policy mix would have included a tightening of policy targeted at the housing sector, say by lowering the acceptable loan-to-value ratio, while easing the federal funds rate to achieve full employment? If so, and since the macroeconomic policy objectives are the same, should these macroprudential tools be thought of as monetary policy tools rather than supervisory tools? If macroprudential tools are used to achieve the goals of monetary policy, does that mean macroprudential policy should be managed like monetary policy? What are the key governance issues? For example, in the United States, should using these tools be an FOMC function? How are these decisions made in other central banks, like the Bank of England, that are responsible for both functions? What are the long-run implications?